With all the recounts that had been done, especially in heavily Democratic counties, did Nader pick up any votes?
I haven't heard if he did or didn't. But in trying to divine the intent of the voter, wouldn't it be a bit of a false assumption to attribute a vote to Gore on an otherwise straight Democratic ballot. Afterall, likely Nader voter's would also be likely to vote Democratic in the other races. I point this out relative to a couple of the counties that allowed votes to go for Gore even if the Presidential slot had no marks, but the rest of the ballot was punched along part lines.
Anyway, might be a question to ask, when considering how slippery it is to divine the intent of the voter.
Cobra