Author Topic: Do preWar wars count?  (Read 2653 times)

Offline Rich46yo

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Re: Do preWar wars count?
« Reply #15 on: September 12, 2015, 08:03:21 PM »
So by that definition 1 Sep 1939 only involved 3 European countries and had nothing to do with most of the world. Why then would it be called a "World War" and not any of the others?


WW2 officially runs from 1st september 1939 (invasion of Poland) to 2nd September 1945 (japanese surrender). there was wars before that but the Spanish civil war and the war between japan and china is not a world war. These conflicts had nothing to do with each other. I vote for using the official definition of WW2 otherwise it we be just a mess.
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Offline Squire

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Re: Do preWar wars count?
« Reply #16 on: September 13, 2015, 05:43:43 PM »
Because the precipitating actions of the 4 countries (Poland, Britain, Germany and France) drew in other nations by various means into what was originally "their war" until it was a World War. Dates and titles are entirely subjective...the Soviets did not call it "World War 2" but "The Great Patriotic War" and for them it started in June of 1941 not September 1939. The Japanese called it "The Pacific War" until later on. Now they probably call it "The Atomic Bomb Incident" for all I know.

...In any case the Western historians, writers, nations, lawmakers ect have agreed to use Sep 1939 as the recognized start of what we call World War 2. Its done so historical writings, memoirs, studies, policies, can have a defined and agreed upon time frame. If everybody used something different it just causes a lot of problems.

Why was it called WW2? because thats what we called it. Why do we say it started in Sep 1939? because we decided to do that.

If you wanted to make a case for the Spanish Civil War being part of WW2 you would have to make a case for that but I doubt you could over turn that much precedent. Are there some links between the two? yes there are but perhaps more on the periphery than a direct link. The Spanish war did not draw in any other countries to make outright declarations of war and the conflict ended in April 1939.

Its been argued that perhaps 1914-1945 should be viewed as one large conflict (I beleive John Keegan mentioned that) with several phases which it was of course but then it becomes more difficult to pin down what part you are referring to in any discussion. Future historians might decide to go that route though who knows.
« Last Edit: September 13, 2015, 05:57:45 PM by Squire »
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Offline PJ_Godzilla

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Re: Do preWar wars count?
« Reply #17 on: September 13, 2015, 05:54:29 PM »
Interesting use of the pronoun "we". It means "the winners"... And I largely agree with your points regarding that, subjectivity, and General acceptance.
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Offline Squire

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Re: Do preWar wars count?
« Reply #18 on: September 13, 2015, 05:56:28 PM »
Well even if we lost it I suppose our own people would have called it something? Its certainly reasonable for countries to call it what they choose.
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Offline Someguy63

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Re: Do preWar wars count?
« Reply #19 on: September 15, 2015, 11:39:50 AM »
WW2 officially runs from 1st september 1939 (invasion of Poland) to 2nd September 1945 (japanese surrender). there was wars before that but the Spanish civil war and the war between japan and china is not a world war. These conflicts had nothing to do with each other. I vote for using the official definition of WW2 otherwise it we be just a mess.

Exactly I agree.
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