Originally posted by lazs2
How can a crime rate be at a saturation point? wouldn't a saturation point be anarchy or riots?
No, Dummy - I meant that the supply of guns has reached saturation point - the point at which all demand for guns has been sated, and no criminal wants for one - he already has one or many. And because of that, it wouldn't make any difference if the cops were to hand out guns. Criminals already have more than they can handle. A few more would make no difference.
Your crime isn't going down. The only way you can claim that your crime is going down is because of a large influx of law abiding people whose presence has had the effect of diluting the per capita crime rate. But you're
still wrong, even after making an allowance for that. If you would look at the FBI chart (attached) you will see that homicides (the crime most closely associated with guns, which is what we're talking about) went down between 1998 and 2000. But from 2000 it started going back up. Between 2001 and 2002 it remained static.
However the overall volume of crime is on the increase as of 1999, and the number of firearms related homicides has increased every year since 1999.
I'm out of here till Sunday evening. Argue amongst yourselves...