Originally posted by Seagoon
Howdy Nash,
I'm curious. In your system what is the source of these inalienable rights, how are they granted, and how are they revealed and received? And how may one discern between truth and error in considering them?
For instance, in the Christian Theistic system, these rights are part of the moral law of God, they were given by Him to man and they are revealed via His own special revelation (scripture/infallible) and natural revelation (the conscience/fallible). One discerns between truth and error by reference to what his scripture states, so if I have a fallible conviction that theft might be ok, I test that conviction via his infallible word.
- SEAGOON
Hey Seagoon,
Lets get one thing out of the way, first. I really don't know much about this stuff. My understanding could probably best be described only as a
sense. I could have it completely wrong and would not be surprised were it so. So if my explanation is hard to understand, believe me, it won't be your fault.
The source of these inalienable rights is ultimately inconceivable, but I'm fine with the word "God" just for expediency's sake. I don't believe that they were
granted by God, but that they are just natural - a "way." It sounds trite, but I believe that these inalienable rights exist because
that's just the way it is. They can no more be granted than I could grant you a square foot section of water in some river.
So to answer your first question, they are not granted... they are experienced.
How are they revealed and received? In my view, they are not so much revealed as discovered. They have always existed and always will, and man simply becomes more aware of them as he ages. I think it's less an accident that on one side of the world you had "Do unto others...." and on the other "Consider others as yourself," than it is evidence of the awareness of this. Certainly both men came to the same conclusion, yet there'd be some dispute as to how they arrived there.
"And how may one discern between truth and error in considering them?" I think our conscience guides us. For the most part, we have an innate sense of right and wrong. Justice and injustice. So we describe certain rights as inalienable, because to deprive us of them would be unconscionable.
So where we mainly differ is the source. You submit that God granted us these rights. I submit that in a strange way, God
is these rights. If I choose to accept your belief that these rights are given, then it follows that they can be taken away. God isn't frozen in cryogenic chamber, and we're all aware of how many updates and patches the Bible has been through to get us to Christianity v20.05. First he giveth then he taketh away. Or some might say....
To me it's quite simple. In order to be inalienable they cannot be owned. They cannot be spoken for. They just
are.