Originally posted by AKDejaVu:
Basically, instead of telling us that the constitution doesn't aply... tell us what does? I don't believe it is acceptable to treat them in any manner we see fit.
AKDejaVu
I don't believe it's acceptable to treat them in any manner we see fit either. However, the fact remains that any rights granted to non-citizens are done so by acts of Congress and are not explicit in the Constitution itself. What we currently have, thankfully, is a great deal of overlap between rights enjoyed by Americans and rights enjoyed by foreign visitors to America. I firmly believe that that's as it should be.
However, Congress could choose to revoke those rights immediately if it desired. As a case in point, AG Ashcroft pushed for a provision of the anti-terrorism bill that would have enabled the United States to detain suspect foreigners indefinitely without officially charging them with a crime. Congress balked at this proposal and instead voted to allow the US Government to detain suspect foreign nationals for no longer than seven days without being charged. In addition, they instituted a sunset clause on this provision that would eliminate it after three or four years. It seems unlikely that we'd ever have that sort of debate over legislation affecting American citizens, who are guaranteed due process and a timely trial. A bill applying these standards to Americans would never make it out of committee.
So yes, Congress has the power to eliminate any parity between rights shared by citizens and non-citizens. However, they've also demonstrated a respectable level of pragmatism here. I think they fear the Pandora's Box as much as you do, DejaVu.
-- Todd/Leviathn
[ 11-07-2001: Message edited by: Dead Man Flying ]