Originally posted by lukster
If the belt is allowed an accleration which induces a force on the wheel greater than the thrust the plane is capable of producing then the plane will never move forward. Assuming you allow an acceleration somewhat less than what the plane is capable of countering then you would calaculate the resulting difference over time to determine if the plane could reach flying velocity before the wheels were spinning so fast that wheel bearing heat became a factor.
I know all of this has been said. I'm really just summarizing.
An airplane can overcome the inertial forces without the conveyor belt, right? It still has to accellerate the wheel. Why would it not be able to overcome the force applied by the conveyor that is also accellerating the wheel? I would estimate the inertial force applied by the conveyor to be double the normal forces needed to be able to take off. Why would it be anymore than that?
Wouldn't the inertial forces be calculable based upon the weight of the wheel, the radius from the center of rotation to the point of friction?
Something like: (wikipedia ftw!)
I=k*M*R^2
where
I is the moment of inertia
k is the inertial constant (1/2 for a solid disk .. closest approximate to a wheel),
M is the mass, and
R is the radius of the object from the center of mass.
I just dont see the wheels (a small percentage of the plane's overall mass) generating enough inertial forces to keep the plane reaching take off speed. The engine and thrust were designed to get the plane+load+20% to flight speed.
Terror