Why in 1945 did Harris continue the area bombing of cities with little relevance to the German war effort? Especially considering that BC could hit more precise targets with a more immediate impact on Germany’s capacity to wage war.
Why did Spaatz?
This was the USAAF's SOP, as updated in October 1944:
"No towns or cities in Germany will be attacked
as secondary or last resort targets, targets of
opportunity, or otherwise, unless such towns contain
or have immediately adjacent to them, one (1)
or more military objectives. Military objectives
include railway lines; junctions; marshalling yards;
railway or road bridges, or other communications
networks; any industrial plant; and such obvious
military objectives as oil storage tanks, military
camps and barracks, troop concentrations, motor
transport or AFV parks, ordnance or supply
depots, ammunition depots; airfields; etc."
"It has been determined that towns and cities
large enough to produce an identifiable return on
the H2X scope generally contain a large proportion
of the military objectives listed above. These centers,
therefore, may be attacked as secondary or
last resort targets through the overcast bombing technique"
In other words, if it's got a bridge, or a railway line, or a factory, the town is a valid target. If you can see it on radar, bomb it.
It's quoted in American Bombardment Policy Against Germany, by Richard G Davis, who sums up the policy:
"Almost every city or town in Germany with a population
exceeding 50,000, and a few below that
figure, met the foregoing criteria. This policy made
it open season for bombing Germany’s major cities
in any weather."
The USAAF was doing it's share of area bombing cities in Europe in 1944 and 1945, they just didn't like to admit it.
Harris pushed to stay the course even at the expense of his crews.
Harris pushed to end the war as quickly as possible.
He knew that would be hard on his crews, but he also knew that their losses were light in comparison to normal military losses.
You are making the comparisons not me.
I can judge individual acts by themselves. The context in which my judgments and points are presented in this thread aren't wrapped around what the Nazi's, or American's, or Soviet's, or Japanese did.
You have to keep it in context.
Area bombing Argentina over their invasion of the Falklands would not have been right. It would have been disproportionate.
Area bombing Germany was not disproportionate, in fact it was "small potatos" compared to the overall picture.
You are making the moral comparisons.
I'm not making moral comparisons. I see nothing immoral in attacking the enemy, providing the results of such attacks are not disproportionate to the harm the enemy is causing.
[quote I state the deliberate strategy of targeting civilians by BC during WW2 was wrong.[/quote]
I state there was no such policy, any more (or less) than Luftwaffe attacks on British morale (and food supplies) in 1940 were attacks on civilians, or any more (or less) than USAAF attacks on Japanese and German cities were attacks on civilians.
You are making a case that BC and Britain had no other method, tactic or strategy available to them other then 'de-housing'.
Am I? I don't think so.
I am making a case Britain had no more effective method. And to support that claim I pointed out the British followed the same progression the other major strategic forces did, from precision attacks to area bombing.
There must be some reason why the Luftwaffe, RAF and USAAF all ended up doing the same thing, area bombing (amongst others, of course)
There were British folks during the war who were appalled at the methods of BC. After Dresden even Churchill tried to get some space between him and Harris. In previous posts and threads of mine I quoted such folks. In this thread I posted Churchill's memorandum. If need be I can re-post them.
Be aware that Churchill's memorandum was withdrawn, and Churchill actually complains that Germany would be so damaged the allies wouldn't be able to seize anything worthwhile in reparations.
My point is that comparing immoral acts is in no way a useful tool in making your point.
I'm not comparing them. There is no comparison whatsoever between attacking your enemy and rounding up and murdering civilians who have already surrendered to you.
On 24 Aug '40, German planes bombed central London due to a navigational error. This is for the most part is in agreement with a good portion of Historians. During the next 2 nights the Brits launched raids on Berlin.
Not strictly true. On the 24th the Luftwaffe launched extensive bombing raids over Britain, some mistakenly hit London. On the 25th they did the same thing again, as the RAF was bombing select targets in Berlin.
But the entire "escalation" had been underway long before then. The Luftwaffe had killed over a thousand British civilians by the time they "accidentally" dropped their first bombs on London.
Whilst Hitler might have considered only London to be important, I don't think the British viewed those 1,000 dead as any less important because they weren't Londoners.
And the full scale attack on London was simply the German attempt to bomb their way to victory. Planned for weeks by the German staff, something Kesselring had been pinninghis hopes on.
To prepare for invasion they didn't need to go Berlin or into Germany. They just needed to established control over western Europe. In fact leading up to and in support of D-day Bombers were pulled back from Germany to hit targets in the area I just described.
So you would want to throw the entire bombing campaign out of the window?
Yes, the fighter bombers had sufficient range to contest air space over France, and destroy the Luftwaffe that way.
But the allies would be facing a Germany armed with far more tanks, far more artillery, far more fuel, far more soldiers.
Because the fighter bombers wouldn't be destroying German oil refineries, factories, cities, transport, and there wouldn't be a third of German artillery production going on AA weapons over Germany, with all the manpower associated with that.
The Wehrmacht won its 'victories' on the ground with the LW supporting the ground forces.
Right. So what happens against Britain? They couldn't use ground troops, because there was a bit of water in the way.
So they switched to bombing.
I already told you. The LW wasn't tasked with 'victory'. Their roll was to force Britain into a deal.
They were tasked with making sure Britain gave up the war against Germany. That's victory by anyone's definition (apart from yours, it seems).
Hitler had no real plan to win a military victory over Britain by invasion and the best he could hope for was to destroy the RAF and get a deal.
The best he could hope for was to destroy the RAF and bomb Britain into submission. That's what he set out to do.
From their I already answered your claim about the LW shift in strategy to hitting British cities.
Did you? Do you deny they did it, or do you claim they carried on the bombing for some obscure reason, rather than the obvious one fo trying to defeat Britain?
The IMT (International Military Tribunal) did not define the killing of civilians during aerial bombardment of population centers as a war-crime. The judgement of the IMT did not include the bombing of civilian targets, even though that would have been an 'easy' charge to lay against Goering as head of the Luftwaffe.
If we accept the judgement of the IMT, then neither the German bombing of Belgrade nor any other bombings of civilian targets by either side is to be considered a war crime. I have said so above.
Then we're in agreement. I've never claimed there was anything fundamentally different between the RAF, Luftwaffe and USAAF tactics and methods, although there was clearly a difference of scale.
Maybe I should have been more specific in my statement:
quote:No LW person was charged with any crime related to their bombing offensives.
Yes, you should have.
But the whole point is besides the point. I never made any claims that what the Luftwaffe did was a war crime (in regards to bombing, anyway).
The British should have thought about that before they declared a war they weren't prepared to fight and bombing / targeting German civilians before they were prepared to defend their own.
Well, Britain declared war on Germany after Germany invaded Poland, so I don't really think it was a war Britain wanted.
And Britain didn't target German civilians. I would argue at any point during the war, but if you believe that targetting a city is targetting civilians, then Britain did not do this either until after Germany had, repeatedly.
Again, by the end of 1940 less than 1,000 Germans had been killed by British bombing, 20,000 British had been killed by German bombing.