That would be all well and good but the Nazi strategy wasn't to bomb their way to victory.
It seems it was when neccessary, for example the Blitz. When faced with an enemy on the other side of the channel that they couldn't invade, they resorted to using the Luftwaffe in an all out attempt to bomb their way to victory. (see as evidence the 40,000 British civilians killed in 1940/41)
Indeed, they even went so far as to develop cruise and ballistic missiles in an attempt to bomb their way to vitory, when it became clear their air force couldn't.
What was the plan anyway, to prove they could kill more by bomb then the Nazi's?
No, the plan was to win the war.
Rotterdam was bombed because it was a port bringing in supplies to feed Allied troops. The ports were the targets not civilians..
And German cities were bombed because they were
producing the supplies for the German armies. The cties were the targets, not the civilians.
Warsaw was bombed because Polish military withdrew into the city. 'Flying artillery' was sent in not to target civilians but to demoralize those troops.
When you look in to it, you'll find a lot of Luftwaffe bombing of towns and cities in Poland.
London? London was an escalation brought on by British retaliation of 'a few bombs gone astray'.
No, London was part of a gradual escalation as the Germans switched more bombers to night attacks because they didn't have enough escorts for daylight attacks.
London was also because Kesselring wanted to suck the RAF into a big air battle where he hoped for victory (and he'd been pushing Goering for it for weeks).
And London was because the Germans wanted to bomb their way to victory, because they couldn't stage a successfull invasion. As Jodl wrote before the BoB even began:
The Continuation of the War against England.
"If political means are without results, England's will to resist must be broken by force:
"a) by making war against the English mother country.
"b) by extending the war on the periphery.
"Regarding Point a) there are three possibilities:
"1) Siege....
"2) Terror attacks against English centers of population.
"3) Landing of troops...."
and
"Together with propaganda and temporary terror attacks-declared to be reprisal actions-this increasing weakening of English food supply will paralyze the will of her people to resist and finally break and thus force its government to capitulate
That was written in June 1940.
Otto Bechtle, in a lecture to the Luftwaffe General Staff in 1944, summed up the turn on London as "Economic warfare from the air was begun"
Harris not only went after civilians with a fervor but he went at them at the expense of his own aircraft and crews
Harris went after Germany with a fervour, with the aim of preventing the large scale slaughter of British troops that happened in WW1.
Bomber Command casualties were high, but it's worth pointing out they were lower tby orders of magnatiude than any of the major battles of WW1.
They were only a fraction of overall British casualties, as well.
More civilians in Britain died from German bombing than Bomber Command crewmen killed in battle. Bomber Command killed formed about 7% of total Commonwealth military killed.
And German civilians killed in bombing formed about 1% of all people killed in WW2, less than 10% of the number of Jews murdered, and less than the number of civilians killed in the siege of Leningrad.
Furthermore, the converse of Overy's remark was also true. The production of bomber forces represented a significant resource expenditure for the US and especially Great Britain. Was this a worthwhile military expenditure?
Considering the allies didn't lack for resources, but did lack ways to bring them to bear, then yes. More tank divisions don't help when you can't get supplies to the one's you've got, or when you can't effectively deploy the one's you've got against the enemy.
It makes sense when you overwhelming resources to open more fronts, and spread your enemy thinner, and that's precisely what the bombing campaign did.
And your remarks only consider the amount of allied resources vs the German production lost, without taking into account the amount of resources the Germans pitted against the bombing campaign (very large percentages of artillery output, almost their entire air force, most of their electronic industry, hundreds of thousands of men, etc)
Perhaps the greatest oversight in an analysis that focuses on the latter part of the war is that the crucial period to consider is from 1941 to 1943. It is in this period that German power is substantial and the possibility of a German military victory exists. How effective was the Allied bomber campaign during this period? According to a table found in the Penguin Atlas of World History, the Allies dropped about 10,000 tons on Germany in 1940, 30,000 tons in 1941, 40,000 tons in 1942 and 120,000 tons in 1943 while in 1944 they drop 650,000 tons and in 1945, about 500,000 tons are dropped in the first four months (at that rate, 1.5 million tons would be dropped over the course of 1945). Considering that Germany dropped about 37,000 tons on the UK in 1940, another 22,000 tons in 1941, with a few thousand tons every year thereafter with marginal results, there is little reason to believe that the scale of Allied bombing between 1940 and 1943 was substantial enough to alter the military balance in 1941 or 1942 either.
There's also little reason to believe the allied effort devoted to such small bomber forces would have made a difference to the military balance in 1941 or 1942 either.
There was no prospect of an invasion of Europe in 1941 or 42, even if there had been no bombing camapign, sufficient resouces were allocated for victory in NA, what exactly could be done different with resources devoted from the rather small bomber forces of the day?
Sending troops to Russia was out of the question (and the fact that it wasn't done is due to politics, not to a shortage of troops in 1941/42), there was no real prospect of the British losing Egypt (as Rommel proved when he got as far as El Alamein, he had gone beyond his supply chain).