Originally posted by miko2d
Examples:
Replacement of the gold standard with free-floating fiat currencies. That makes it much more difficult and risky to conduct international trade and investment, which reduces the division of labor and thus productivity.
The cost of airfare and telephone communications fell drastically and usage exploded after the government partially deregulated airlines and telecoms and let competition take its course.
I'm not seeing as how those three examples are transaction cost related. Note I did not include Constitutional power of the Federal government to mint coin. It was not an exclusive right back then. Many states minted and the standard was gold.
There are some pro's and con's to the gold standard. But that is a different conversation.
Airline and telecommunication regulation also did not have a basis in reducing transaction costs.
Both the consumer and the seller are damaged by increased transaction costs. As such, aggregate transaction costs are an externality that is born by all in society and as such their reduction is a public good.Originally posted by miko2d
The very concept of externality is considered bogus by Austrian school and really represents the imperfectly defined property rights and government intervention.
Well, it is not like the Austrians were perfect...even FA Hayek admitted he made a mistake in some of his Socialist Debate arguments. Plus, the Austrians tended to poopoo Keynesian Theory, which is still the cornerstone of macro theory today. Keynes was not perfect either, but it does not mean that his theories are complete crap. [See my next post...I don't think the Austrian school excludes the concept of externalities]
Externalities exist. They may exist because of imperfectly defined property rights, but that does not remove their existences.
Unfortunately, without government interference, there is not an efficient way of mitigating negative externalities. Government can attempt to more clearly define property rights and allow individuals to claim remuneration from individual producers of negative externalities. Or it can attempt to mitigate negative externalities in the aggregate.
For example, I do not value cigarette smoke at all. To me the negative value each time I am forced to breathe cigarette smoke is $50...for prolonged exposure (more than a minute) it is $1000. Now, in a pure anarchist "free market" society, I would have to attempt to extract the negative value each time with each individual smoker that happens along my path. What happens if the smoker does not have the money available to compensate me for having to bear the cost of his smoke? I would have to litigate each time. That is not very efficient at all.
Government instead collects a tax as aggregate mitigation and creates regulations so as to give me places where I can be assured that I will not have to bear the cost of someone elses cigarette smoke production. In turn smokers are allowed some areas where they may produce cigarette smoke without fear that I will hit them up for money to compensate me for having to breathe their smoke.
Originally posted by miko2d
But even in the conventional economics I doubt that increased - or rather not reduced - transaction costs would count as an externality.
Sure they are...ever hear of network externalities? They are directly related to transactions.
Originally posted by miko2d
It costs to standardise. Once the benefits outweight costs, people standardise. Otherwise standardisation is counter-productive.
What about the metric system? How many americans know how many grains are in an ounce or pounds per ton? How many know how many feet are per mile - whichever one of the few we use? What about quarts per barrel?
Doesn't seem to cause that much trouble.
Ah...you are missing the point of why a government sets a standard. Anyone can set a standard. I can set one. You can set one. The Europeans can set one. The US can set one.
Look at my example again. I say I'm selling a pound of butter...I've set my standard to be 15oz=1lb. The buyer believes that 16oz=1lb. If the government has set a standard of 16oz=1lb, then I am guilty of committing fraud and the buyer has legal recourse. If there is no government set standard, the only way that the buyer is protected is by measuring the weight of the butter against a scale that the buyer understands. The latter is an increased transaction cost.
What is the cost of setting a weight standard? Whatever the cost of the legislative or executive body selecting and publishing the standard.
What is the cost of not setting a weight standard? The aggregate cost of weighing time of all consumers buying items sold by weight + the aggregate cost of all consumers buying/storing/transporting scales + the aggregate lost potential sales from consumers not having scales when desired.
If you try to only look at individual benefits exceeding individual costs, aggregate optimality will not be achieved and there will be a net loss to the economic system. Basically, it is like drag keeping a system from reaching the frontier of the production possibility curve.
Originally posted by miko2d
They gave the US government power to set a standard of weights & measures, the power to create a postal system
Imperial power grab. They forcefully shut down much less expensive private mail delivery systems like the one created by Lysander Spooner.
Then they used the monopoly on mail to introduce censorship, by making it a crime to send certain things through the mail they did not like.
People went to jail for sending medical information related to contraception/birth control through the mail. Newspaper editors were prosecuted for printing articles about birth control since the newspapers were delivered through the mail. [/B]
Well, those actions were constitutionally challenged and eventually they were shown to be unconstitutional. The Constitution does not give monopoly rights to the USPS...and as such we do have private competitors, ie UPS, FedEx, DHL, etc.
BTW, the only private postal services up until Spooner had very limited routes and were not real competition for the USPS. Before Spooner, all real postal service in the American Colonies and US were state sponsored...either British, Colony, State, or Federal sponsored. Spooner's postal service did not show up until 50 years after the US Constitution was completed...so it is not like Ben Franklin as the first Postmaster General of the confederated colonies in 1775 supplanted Spooner...it did supplant the British sponsored service though.
Originally posted by miko2d
and the power to build roads. Why?
Private turnpikes, private railroads were built in US and over the world. The answer is the same - power grab by the government, providing contracts and land for supporters.[/B]
Again, the Constitution does not give the US government monopoly over roads. My subdivision has private roads. I drive on a private road every few months called Roebling Road Raceway. If you wish to make a turnpike...go ahead...buy the land, pave it, and charge folks to drive on it. I'd only suggest you build it in a place where there is not a cheaper alternative to your road.
The reason government offers public alternatives to private postal service and private turnpikes is to assure access. If I own a private road then I can deny access to whom ever I please. Worst case scenario would be a private road that two competing companies use to carry goods to buyers. One company buys the road and then denies access to vehicles carrying the goods of the other company. The second company now must build a road or take alternate and longer routes. The net effect is higher aggregate transaction costs. And if the 2nd company goes out of business because it cannot compete given its higher transport costs, then the first company would be able to capture monopoly profits. Both the higher transaction costs and the monopoly situation are non optimal.
It is the same deal for postal services...USPS provides guaranteed access.
Originally posted by miko2d
If I cannot read, then I must find someone who I trust to read for me...
Which may be your cheapest alternative. You only need to pay when/if you need something read or translated from a foreign langauge.
If you do it too often, you may save money in the long run by investing into education.
If I cannot read then I cannot learn of a seller's availability by reading an advertisement.
If advertiser targeted you, he would come up with a format you would be able to perceive, right?
[/B]
Again...you are only looking at the cost-benefit from an individual perspective and not in the aggregate. You have to total up all those individual costs plus the lost opportunity costs for sellers in the case where buyers forgo a purchase because they are not enabled to make the transaction. Plus when considering information transfer, you must consider the leveraging advantage as the number of individuals with a common communication path increases. IE, consider a telephone...if I have the only one then it is pretty useless. If there are two then the utility goes up...the more telephones available for me to call the higher the utility. If you optimize individual benefits only, you miss the maximum aggregate utility possible.