Originally posted by john9001
What was unclear?
Originally posted by SteveBailey
Does that make it less reprehensible?
Depends on whether you consider legality and morality to be linked. I personally do not, so my answer to your question is: No. Whether it was legal or not does not affect the morality (or immorality) of the act.
Originally posted by Tango
BOTH incidents were the murder of innocent civilians. How is it an insult to "mention the incident in the same context as the Holocaust"?
Are you saying one was worse than the other? BOTH cases was murder and needed to be stopped.
Not true. The Holocaust was the mass murder of millions of innocent civilians for nothing more than racial bigotry and cruelty. The Holocaust is perhaps unrivaled in the cruelty and complete pointlessness of the crime.
The chemical bombardment of the Kurdish village of Halabja in 1988 was an act of war. Halabja was located on the front line of the Iran-Iraq war and was at the time of the bombardment occupied by Iranian forces and Kurdish guerrillas fighting on the Iranian side. Yes ... the Kurds betrayed Iraq and fought for Iran. Chemical weapons were used by both Iraq and Iran during that 8 year war, and was not at the time classified as a "weapon of mass destruction", but as conventional munitions. Iraq and Iran were not signatories to the treaty banning chemical weapons, and neither was the Unites States of America for that matter. Under international law and the articles of the Geneva Conventions Halabja was a legitimate military target controlled by an enemy force, attacked and bombarded by weapons that were legal at the time (though frowned upon).
Considering that you are from a country that has used nuclear weapons on two cities and firebombed several others I find your outrage more than a little hypocritical.
And yes ... it is an insult to compare the horrors of the Holocaust to an act of war. By doing so you belittle the people that suffered and perished and degrade the meaning of the word "Holocaust".