Now the argument pops up again.
The Nazi's bombed London. The Nazi's were a pretty nasty bunch.
The Brits deliberately target German civilians, but on a grander scale. Because Germany started, the Brits calling the air raids are war heroes.
Put in a more neutral way:
Action P is morally objectionable at time T.
Country A does action P on country B at time T.
Country B, at time T+n, does action P to country B, justifying it on the basis that country A did it at time T.
At time T+n, the morally reprehensible action is now fully justified because country A did it before time T+n.
Said in other words: a man of one family skins a girl of the family next door alive, then cooks her and eat her brains.
The next door family, upon learning of this, promptly break into his house, take his son, skins him alive, cut of his limbs, remove his guts and then proceed to boil and eat him in his entirety.
The police drops by. Who should the police arrest?
That A does action B to C doesn't make action B done to A by C afterwards justifiable.
If you're the good guy, you don't do evil things deliberately and for no real purpose.
About casualties: the US has a grim reminder of how hard it is to locate remains on Sept 11. After several months, not all remains have been found.
With lots of collapsing buidings and plenty of fire - and very limited resources, it is hard to expect that the Germans in Dresden could do much better. Lots more were killed than bodies were found, and that's about the end of that.
If the Nazis kill 16 million "undesireables", is it morally justified to kill 500,000 Germans to stop them?
This is misrepresenting what happened. The firebombing of Dresden wasn't done to stop the Germans. They held little strategic value and actually directed resources *away* from the real war from places where they could do more good. The Brits, having experienced the Blitz, knew such terror bombing would not crush the moral of the civilian population.
Sign in Berlin says it all: "you may break our walls, but you'll never break our hearts".
The answer to your question is yes, and that the question is irrelevant with regards to the discussion of the Brit bombing of Dresden.
Not revenge, revenge would be to kill them after the war to punish them.
I disagree. For a thing to be an act of revenge, it does not have to happen after the war has ended. The Brits wanted to get even for the earlier humiliation they'd suffered, and they did get even.
Furing the war, if ou believe it would stop the Nazis, would you have bombed German cities?
A very good question. Yes I would. There are many legitimate military targets in cities. I'd target those.
But would I, knowing the futility and pointlessness of it, order thousands of sorties against civilians in cities - mind you, with the intent of purpose of killing them, not military installations? No, I most certainly would not.
I would. To condemn millions to death because you are to squeamish to kill hundreds of thousands is immoral.
Agreed. To needlessly target civilians because you're pissed and wanna get even is immoral too.
Remember, Harris believed he could win the war through bombing, just as LeMay did in Japan. You are now judging his morals on wether he was successful or not, which seems really bizare.
No. I ain't saying a *thing* about using bombers to drop on military targets - to bomb the enemys forces so hard they have little to resist with when the invasion comes. But Harris was around during the Blitz. he saw what it did to his own countrymen Rather than shake their resolve, it made it more firm. He knew it, yet still ordered the massive strikes against civilians.
I said:
This is the same argument I've seen over and over. Because A did something reprehensible, B, C and D
are allowed to do the same, only now it is not reprehensible. Now it's justified. It's a false argument
Not justified becuse they deserve it, or as punishment.
I am trying to point out to you the difference between modern wars and WW2.
When the Serbs or Iraquis were bombed, the west could do so carefully, taking their time to pick out individual military targets, and attack them with fairly high precision. There was no real rush, because the regimes being attacked weren't mssacring people on anything like the scale.
The Americans in their bombings of Germany seemed to be able to target specific military targets. And, they never agreed to bomb just to terror bomb. And, if there's a real rush, it seems odd to me to divert so many resources away from where they could be useful to a place where all they could do was kill toejameloads of civilians.
The idea of Thunderclap was to break the Germn's morale, show them that although they were beaten, things would get worse until they surrendered.
By terror bombing their cities. The idea was flawed. This was shown during the Blitz, and it doesn't seem like the bombing of Dresden shook the German morale as a whole very much - on the contrar, it probably made a lot of people very angry, firming their resolve to at least give some back (odd how that cycle starts).
If it had worked, it would have saved a million lives. It didn't, so it becomes immoral? [/b}
It had already been established that terror bombing really didn't work. He still went ahead with it.
And, you could turn this around: if the Germans had been succesful with their Blitz, would this be morally justifiable?
Not in my book. YMMV.
We could talk about the Blitz, and I'd say *the exact same things* I am saying now - only I'd add that they'd be even worse for doing it the first time. (And aye, I know they did it in Spain, too, on a much smaller scale).